First of all, I thanks you, Iguana and Remek, for your hard work and this interesting thread.
That said, I have some perplexity about your theory.
First of, does this theory implies that if someone has done only manual stretching, than he will have a longer tunica but pretty the same smooth muscles than before? So, he should have a partially void penis? I think all penile components will grow together. I’m saying something analogous to what ttt, posted :
Originally Posted by ticktickticker
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The only weakness of your theory is that those pe activities that you assume to increase smooth muscle mass in fact may just increase the tunica circumference. Smooth muscle mass follows (hopefully) to maintain an optimally functional organ.
The second point is that your hypothesis about the relation between [BPFSL>>BPEL]-> [less smooth muscle than needed] doesn’t cut-off the role of the blood in filling the void space: i.e., you are supposing that
a) you have to make your smooth muscle bigger;
b) you have to fill this more muscle with blood;
now, let’s apply the Occam' Razor: could the more blood alone fill that gap? I’d say yes, for two reason:
1) smooth muscles are really elastic, by what I know; should not be a problem to expand them a little more than in the “pre length gain state”;
2) those who have BPFSL>>BPEL, are usually able to reach BPFSL when clamping - and we can’t suppose that smooth muscle grow instantaneously, agree?
So, if your body “learn” how to push this little more blood in the penis, this fact alone can explain why girth routine are good choices in that situation. The hypothesis on smooth muscle growth is not required to explain the same phenomena: this is a consequence, not the cause, of the filled gap.
On the other hand, thinking of a tunica too little for the smooth muscle inside, is a little unnatural: think that, if it were, you could not achieve a real 100% erections, because the tunica, exceptionally strong as you know, doesn’t permit to smooth muscle to fully expand: so, tunica has to be the limiting factor, in any case.
Finally, I agree with memento about the studies regarding the hypothetical relation [smooth muscle lackness -> ED]; I think that, by what we know, only the inverse relation is somewhat proven :[ED->smooth muscle lackness] - due to progressive atrophy.
I hope what I’m posting is clear, you know, my English….!?
PS: “->” means “implies”, of course.