Originally Posted by marinera
….
Priapism is a common complication of sickle cell anemia. We report a little known sequela of priapism: painless megalophallus, with significant penile enlargement. The patient had had an intense episode of priapism 9 years previously and his penis remained enlarged. Blood oxygen level-dependent magnetic resonance imaging revealed enlarged, hypoxic corpora cavernosa. Megalophallus probably resulted from permanent loss of elasticity of the tunica albuginea due to severe engorgement during the episode of priapism. This sequela needs to be recognized by physicians because no intervention is necessary and sexual function seems to remain intact[/i].”
You see? It’s an opinion of the author, not a fact or a commonly accepted view in the scientific commnunity.
While he did say “probably,” I would regard it as more than a mere “armchair opinion.” Remember, they conducted a scientific study on the patient, as well as thermal imaging photography (in other words, that had quite an in-depth view of his inner penis, upon which to base their conclusion [about the loss of elasticity] - clearly they saw what they saw).
Furthermore, they indicate “This sequela (the long term after effects) needs to be recognized by physicians because no intervention is necessary and sexual function seems to remain intact.”
“…needs to be recognized by physicians….” sounds pretty damn confident.
Originally Posted by marinera
….
“The plausibility of this mechanism for megalophallus is supported by the lack of increase in the circumference of the glans in our patient and the one previously described.”
So, they are basing their hypothesis on the fact that the glans wasn’t hypertrophied. Now, have you read this?
“….It is interesting to note that the penile hypertrophy was
confined to the corpora cavernosa and that the glans and
the corpus spongiosum were of normal size. It is well
known that the latter structures are not involved in
priapism and hence they are not subjected to hypoxic
stimulus to under hypertrophy.”
What it gives?
NB: you may note that I’m using the fulltext of the case study, not an abstract.
(1) That the glans wasn’t enlarged is no surprise at all to me (we’ve had several discussions here about the difficulty of glans enlargement), and my theory is that the glans is so incredibly elastic. Regarding the CS, that is a little surprising, but not greatly. After all, most of us probably recognize that we get the majority of our girth gains from the 2 large chambers - the CC.
(2) marinera, I know that English is not your native language (and I confess that you speak it better than I speak my 2nd or 3rd language), but I think you missed something on your reading of that technical material: You said, “So, they are basing their hypothesis on the fact that the glans wasn’t hypertrophied,” but that is not accurate. They did not “base” their theory on that, they stated that “…The plausibility of this mechanism for megalophallus is supported by…”etc., etc. They merely referenced it, after the fact, as a supporting/non-contradicting observation. I don’t mean to sound like a hair-splitter, but there really is a difference. I’ll bet that much of their conclusion was “based” on their scientific tests, thermal imagery, etc. And then, summing it up, they referenced what they did about the glans & CS.
(3) I will concede that they seem to be employing a “generic” reference to hypertrophy, and not always the strict application associated with striated skeletal muscle. Because even though they claim the massive enlargement was due to “loss of elasticity,” they still employed the phrase “hypertrophy” (obviously in a loose manner). Yet the other, 134-yr old, study is far from modern science.